according to the statistical test that is used, the probability that the observed effect is due to chance/coincidence.
p of 0.047654 means the probability that the observed effect is due to chance is 4.8%
p of 0.1234 means that probability of the observed effect is due to chance is 12.3%
No. It is the probability of observing data as extreme as this given that the null hypothesis is true. Something that scientists get wrong all the time.
I've read over the paper and the analysis is very flawed. If they stick with frequentist analysis at least need some form of multiple comparison correction which makes everything non-significant. Ideally need to fit a single Bayesian regression model with sensible priors, in which case all effects would also disappear (I.e., would get high probability that effect size is close to zero).
Results here are indistinguishable from noise. However, plenty of journals now that will publish this type of flawed research for a fee.




