Hi all
It's my first ever post here.
I have a question regarding 2talk outbound calls, specifically to 0800/0508 toll free numbers.
As most of you are aware, many businesses/government departments do not accept calls from mobile phones.
IRD is the prominent one that does this.
So I thought this was obvious that calls made from my 028 2550 xxxx couldn't be made. (Technically, they DO terminate calls from mobile phones they just play the message directing people to call a 04 Wellington landline number).
So I tried one day and yes I wasn't able to connect to an IRD person at the other end.
BUT, I was curious.
Not sure if many of you tried this, but if you unconditionally divert all your calls to somewhere else, by dialling *72nnnn where nnnn can be any phone number, then when someone calls my 028 number the calls get diverted to nnnn.
I have an iTalk number from Slingshot as well, so I put my 09 281 xxxx in the place of nnnn.
When I rang my 028 number from my 021 8xx xxx (2degrees), the call got diverted to my iTalk number then the caller display shows 021 8xx xxx instead of 028 2550 xxxx.
Oh that's strange, because at my work, unconditional call forwarding basically means our company PBX sends the company's own nubmer (usually hiddlen to most caller ID devices, but can be identified at higher level, and the number our company sends out is usually one of the main trunk numbers, not my personal DDI).
The next step is to put IRD's 0800 number in the place of nnnn, so I dialled *720800227773.
When I rang 028 2550 xxxx from my 021 8xx xxx, the call was answered by the usual message saying that I should ring them back on a 04 landline. That's fine, probably what I expected anyway.
But when I rang my 028 2550 xxx from my 09 580 xxxx landline, the call actually went through as if I was calling from a landline.
Technically, at least from what I understand, both calls are originating from the same 028 2550 xxxx.
So how is this possible?
Does that mean IRD accepts calls from 028 numbers in general if the call is forwarding a landline originated call? (in my case 09 580 xxxx)
Regardless of what caller ID get sent to IRD, both calls are originating from the same 028 number in IRD's point of view, so how does the billing work? Do they get charged landline rates for calls forwarded from landlines or do they get charged mobile rates for calls forwarded from landlines?
So in simple graph
case 1: 09 580 xxxx -> 028 2550 xxxx -> 0800 227773 IRD accepts call
case 2: 021 8xx xxx -> 028 2550 xxxx -> 0800 227772 IRD declines call
So in case 1, how does billing work? Does 2talk get paid mobile rates or landline rates for originating calls?
I am happy to add more description and I am sure this is an interesting topic for some of you as well.